Consider an open economy during a historical period characterized by high, unpredictable inflation. The central bank's monetary policy is not guided by a pre-committed, publicly announced inflation rate, and the government frequently intervenes to manage the currency's value in foreign exchange markets. Why would a macroeconomic framework built on the core assumptions of a free-floating exchange rate and a central bank with a strict inflation-targeting mandate be a poor fit for analyzing this economy?
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Consider an open economy during a historical period characterized by high, unpredictable inflation. The central bank's monetary policy is not guided by a pre-committed, publicly announced inflation rate, and the government frequently intervenes to manage the currency's value in foreign exchange markets. Why would a macroeconomic framework built on the core assumptions of a free-floating exchange rate and a central bank with a strict inflation-targeting mandate be a poor fit for analyzing this economy?
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