Multiple Choice

Two historians are debating the primary reason for the significant reduction in average working hours in many industrialized nations during the early 20th century.

  • Historian A argues: 'The decline was a natural economic outcome. As technology made labor more productive, employers could afford to reduce hours without losing output and did so to improve worker morale.'
  • Historian B argues: 'The decline was primarily a political outcome. The extension of the right to vote to a broader segment of the population gave workers the collective power to demand and secure legally mandated reductions in work time.'

Which historian's argument provides a more robust explanation for this historical trend, and why?

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Updated 2025-08-03

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