Multiple Choice

An economist observes that a country's Lorenz curve, which plots the cumulative share of income against the cumulative share of the population, has shifted. The first kink in the curve, representing the share of the population that is unemployed, has moved to the left. The second kink, representing the cumulative share of the population including both the unemployed and the workers, has remained at the same horizontal position. The overall curve is now closer to the line of perfect equality. Given these observations and assuming the proportional shares of national income going to wages and profits have not changed, which of the following economic events is the most plausible explanation?

0

1

Updated 2025-08-10

Contributors are:

Who are from:

Tags

Economics

Economy

Introduction to Macroeconomics Course

Ch.2 Unemployment, wages, and inequality: Supply-side policies and institutions - The Economy 2.0 Macroeconomics @ CORE Econ

The Economy 2.0 Macroeconomics @ CORE Econ

CORE Econ

Social Science

Empirical Science

Science

Analysis in Bloom's Taxonomy

Cognitive Psychology

Psychology

Related