Multiple Choice

Two historians are debating the primary reasons for the decline in Indian living standards during the British colonial era.

  • Historian A argues: "The decline was an unfortunate but indirect consequence of India's integration into the global economy. British policies, while not intentionally harmful, simply exposed less efficient Indian industries to superior global competition."
  • Historian B argues: "The decline was a direct result of specific, deliberate administrative and infrastructure policies. The system was structured to reorient the economy for extraction and military control, actively preventing the development of local industries and agricultural modernization."

Based on the documented mechanisms of colonial economic impact, which historian's argument is more strongly supported, and why?

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Updated 2025-08-14

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